In your remarks, I believe I am correct in saying, you said that both internally and externally Christ was without sin.
On that premise, can you please explain to me the Apostle Paul’s comment in 2 Corinthians 5:21 where Paul says (the context will show that God is speaking of Christ) “God hath made Christ to be sin for us who knew no sin that we might be made the righteousness of God in him”. How is that explained if you say that either internally or externally Christ did not possess sin.
I should have thought that if he was made sin it was perfectly clear that he didn’t have sin before.
But then, at some stage, Christ must have had sin.
Yes, on the cross. When Christ bore our sins in his body on the tree.
Mr. Chairman, May I just say the correct translation of that is “that made him to be a sin-offering” MacKnight, C.H. Dodd, Albright all translate that to be a “sin offering” Christ wasn’t made sin.
Well, I don’t know I wish to make any comment on what the last questioner has stated unless he wishes me to answer.