John 3:13
"And no man hath
ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man
which is in heaven."
Problem:
Since Christ is said to have
come down from heaven, he must have had an existence in heaven prior to his
birth as a human on the earth.
Solution:
1.This passage proves
too much. It is argued that "God the Son" pre-existed as a spirit creature in
heaven prior to his "incarnation", but the passage in John reads, "even the Son
of man which is in heaven". Did the Son of man literally come down from heaven?
2.This passage is one of the many in John's gospel which employs the Old
Testament language of theophany (God appearing). A manifestation of divine power
is referred to as "God coming down". The completion of the theophany is God
"going up" or ascending. (See Genesis 11:5; 18:21; Exod. 3:7, 8; 19:11, 18, 20;
34:5; Psa. 18:9, 10; Isa. 64:1.)
3.Christ did not literally come down
from heaven. His origin was heavenly, (as the context states - John 3:31),
in-so-far as he was conceived by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven and his
teaching was not his own but his Father's. (Luke 1:35; John 7:16; 17:14).
4."Even the Son of man which is in heaven" is likely the comment of John
and not part of the conversation between Jesus and Nicodemus
Ron Abel
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