John 14:9
"Jesus saith, . . . he that
hath seen me hath seen the Father . . ."
Problem:
This
verse is quoted by trinitarians as a clear declaration that Jesus Christ was God
Almighty incarnate.
Solution:
1.Jesus did not mean by these words
that when men saw him, they were literally beholding his Father. Consider the
following: a.Physically, Jesus was not the image of his Father. Isaiah wrote:
"he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty
that we should desire him". (Isa. 53:2). It is unthinkable that the Father would
be less comely than His creation.
b.Jesus told the Jews that they had
"neither heard his (the Father's) voice at any time, nor seen his shape." (John
5:37). This would have been untrue if Jesus were himself the Father.
c.The
Father dwells "in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath
seen, nor can see." (1 Tim. 6:16; cf. 1 John 4:12). Those who saw Jesus, did
not, therefore literally see the Father.
2.John said, "no man
hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the
Father, he hath declared him." (John 1:18). The Son "declared" the Father by the
words which he spoke and the works which he performed. Jesus told Philip: "the
words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth
in me, he doeth the works." (John 14:10). It was in this sense that Jesus meant,
"he that hath seen me hath seen the Father."
3.Jesus employed the
language of "God manifestation" characteristic of the Old Testament. Accredited
representatives exercising divine power and authority bore the divine name. (See
Exod. 23:20, 21 - "I send an Angel . . . my name is in him.") Jesus was the
supreme manifestation - "God was manifest in the flesh." (1 Tim. 3:16). Although
not "Very God" he was justified in saying "he that hath seen me hath seen the
Father" since the Father had delegated this authority and power to him. (See
John 5:19, 22, 23, 30).
Ron Abel
<Previous Contents Next>